question which naturally arises with the assertion of the existence of the providence of a good God: whence comes the moral and physical evil?
101. The relation of divine providence to the freedom of the moral beings and to the evil which exists in the world.
“(1) Divine providence does not impair the freedom of the moral beings. Of this we are assured both by the Word of God and by our own conscience and reason, which also assert that we are all the time under the influence of divine providence (cf. Arts. 81, 93), and that we are all free in our moral actions (Arts. 97, 99). In what manner divine providence, with all its effects in the moral world, does not violate the freedom of the spiritual beings, we are not able fully to explain, but we can to a certain extent approach its comprehension.”
This is the way God with all his effects does not violate the freedom:
“(a) God is an unchangeable, omniscient, all-wise being. Being unchangeable, he, having deigned to endow the rational creatures with freedom, cannot change his determination so as to oppress or entirely abolish it. Being omniscient, he knows in advance all the desires, intentions, and actions of the free beings. And being infinitely all-wise, he will always find means to arrange his actions in such a way as—”
What you expect is: “not to impair the action of his providence,” but that is far from the mark:
“As to leave inviolable the freedom of the actors.” (p. 532.)
In a book which treats of God and of faith in him, suddenly enter the basest tricks!
God is unchangeable, and so he cannot change his determination about the freedom of man. But, in the first place, unchangeableness means something quite different. Unchangeableness means that he remains always
